Hi, so I have a somewhat complicated question and I hope this is the right place to ask it.
My grandfather passed away in February of this year and left a quarter of his estate to my mother, totalling 750000. My mother disclaimed this in order to allow the money to pass on to my brother, who was next in line.
My father, who my grandfather had written out of the will entirely is currently trying to dispute the will in order to have an older version of the will used in which he receives half of my grandfathers entire estate. Historically, my father had been extremely abusive of his children and wife and had been living off of large amounts of money from my grandfather for many years before my grandfather finally told him he would no longer support him. By that time he had already gifted him a large house and about 90 acres of land, on top of having paid all his taxes, bills, for food etc. I could go on about my father if need be, but it probably is irrelevant to my question. Suffice it to say he is extremely manipulative and selfish.
Anyway, my brother, hoping to bring about some sort of peaceful resolution drafted a statement of intent to split his portion 4 ways between himself, myself, my father, and my sister. He met my father's lawyer in person and gave him a signed copy of this letter.
My sister, who is the only person in the family currently in direct contact with my father has told us that my father scoffed at my brother's offer. However she believes that since it contains his signature that my brother will be legally bound to abide by this and that the lawyer representing my father could use it against him. She says that the lawyer said it stengthens their case.
Asking on my brother's behalf, my question is this:
Can the letter my brother wrote be legally binding, if my father has not signed it and has verbally stated that he doesn't intend to? As far as I know my brother still intends to abide by it anyway.
Thanks, it's a complicated and unfortunate situation so I hope I explained it well enough.
My grandfather passed away in February of this year and left a quarter of his estate to my mother, totalling 750000. My mother disclaimed this in order to allow the money to pass on to my brother, who was next in line.
My father, who my grandfather had written out of the will entirely is currently trying to dispute the will in order to have an older version of the will used in which he receives half of my grandfathers entire estate. Historically, my father had been extremely abusive of his children and wife and had been living off of large amounts of money from my grandfather for many years before my grandfather finally told him he would no longer support him. By that time he had already gifted him a large house and about 90 acres of land, on top of having paid all his taxes, bills, for food etc. I could go on about my father if need be, but it probably is irrelevant to my question. Suffice it to say he is extremely manipulative and selfish.
Anyway, my brother, hoping to bring about some sort of peaceful resolution drafted a statement of intent to split his portion 4 ways between himself, myself, my father, and my sister. He met my father's lawyer in person and gave him a signed copy of this letter.
My sister, who is the only person in the family currently in direct contact with my father has told us that my father scoffed at my brother's offer. However she believes that since it contains his signature that my brother will be legally bound to abide by this and that the lawyer representing my father could use it against him. She says that the lawyer said it stengthens their case.
Asking on my brother's behalf, my question is this:
Can the letter my brother wrote be legally binding, if my father has not signed it and has verbally stated that he doesn't intend to? As far as I know my brother still intends to abide by it anyway.
Thanks, it's a complicated and unfortunate situation so I hope I explained it well enough.