trevor1991
New member
I am located in CALIFORNIA. Scenario is below and pertains to a family friend.
This adult friend has lived in a home owned by his parents for the last 8 years. His parents gifted 1% of the home to him back in 2010 when they moved out and even had it recorded. He has lived there since as his primary residence. His parents (who own 99%) have decided they would like to sell the home.
The parents apparently are going to gift the son an extremely large sum after the home sells, but they want to their son to maximize his 121 deduction. The plan is to gift an additional 49% in interest before they sell the home so that the son can take the full $250,000 deduction because he satisfies all the requirements of 121 (use and ownership)
He approached me because he's concerned that the IRS might view this additional gifted interest as "shady" or that it might disallow him to use 121 at all. Any thoughts on this? I can't seem to find anything on Sec 121 issues relating to limited interest transfers....Wouldn't the ownership requirement "reset" once he is gifted the additional 49%?
Would love it if someone can help me with some case law or a revenue ruling on this. Cannot find anything...
This adult friend has lived in a home owned by his parents for the last 8 years. His parents gifted 1% of the home to him back in 2010 when they moved out and even had it recorded. He has lived there since as his primary residence. His parents (who own 99%) have decided they would like to sell the home.
The parents apparently are going to gift the son an extremely large sum after the home sells, but they want to their son to maximize his 121 deduction. The plan is to gift an additional 49% in interest before they sell the home so that the son can take the full $250,000 deduction because he satisfies all the requirements of 121 (use and ownership)
He approached me because he's concerned that the IRS might view this additional gifted interest as "shady" or that it might disallow him to use 121 at all. Any thoughts on this? I can't seem to find anything on Sec 121 issues relating to limited interest transfers....Wouldn't the ownership requirement "reset" once he is gifted the additional 49%?
Would love it if someone can help me with some case law or a revenue ruling on this. Cannot find anything...