That would depend on the terms and conditions of the contract. I looked at a house last year that had one of those 20 year solar leases. I thoroughly read the contract. While a contractor could certainly record a lien for non-payment, (?) the contract I read just had the lease secured by the equipment and not by a lien on the house.
Please excuse me AJ, but I can't agree with your statement that the "the
contractor (leasing company) could record a lien (against the home) for non-payment"! That is, it having a continuing, preferential right to do so.
Also, I must dispute Ldij's offering that the solar panel company might have unilaterally placed an enforceable lien "
against at least the sister's half of the house".
Please understand that I have no quarrel with the ability of the leasing company to do file a UCC-1 financing statement to preserve their ownership in the panels as against successive owners of the property. Nor the ability of the owner to grant the provider of the leased panels a deed of trust to secure the leased payments. Where I disagree is with any suggestion that in the current illustration that the leasing company can now self- impose any lien or security interest against the home.
Even assuming that the instillation of the leased panels even qualifies as "
works of improvement" entitling the company to a mechanic's lien against the home, any such lien rights are provisional, time sensitive AND in this instance have long since expired! To explain:
First of all a formal claim of (mechanic's) lien must be recorded with 90 days of the completion of the work. (
Cal. Civil Code Section 8412)
[Plus, a copy of the claim of lien, together with the statutory form of "
Notice of Mechanics Lien" must be served on the owner or reputed owners of the property by registered, certified or first class mail. (Noting that the failure to properly serve such documents results in a forfeiture of the lien.) (
Cal. Civil Code Section 8416 (8) (c)]
Secondly, the claimant must commence an action to enforce the claim of lien within 90 days following the date the claim of lien is recorded. If no action is commenced to enforce the claim of lien within that 90-day period, the claim of lien expires and "
is unenforceable as a matter of law". (
Cal. CC Section 8460 (a)
So we're looking at a window of 180 days or so and not from the date of any
non-payment, but from date that the installation of the panels was
completed. And that, according to the OP had to have occurred, sometime in late 2018 or early 2019.
Clearly then the leasing entity does not now have an enforceable mechanic's lien against any part of property nor can it unilaterally create such a lien.
This is not to say that the sister could not have somehow singularly and voluntarily encumbered or made an attempt to encumber the property in order to secure the lease payments. But IMO it would need to be in the nature of a recorded deed of trust or mortgage as there are no provisions in applicable law contemplating an owner of real property voluntarily imposing a mechanic's lien against their own property. Or for that matter waiving or relaxing any time constraints on the part of the contractor within which to file a claim of lien.
Moreover, inasmuch as mechanic's liens were not recognized at common law it is a standard rule of construction that the statutes creating them must be literally and strictly interpreted. Meaning not liberally, generously, or permissively or broadly applied.
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So, assuming that the leasing company is without any security interest in the home and the OP is clearly not personally liable, what are its courses of action now that its customer is deceased - other than to retrieve and salvage the panels? I would like hearing your views and comments.
Perplexing for example is how would a creditor's claim against the sister's estate for future occurring interest payments ( 18 years) be administered through probate? Frankly, I don't know.
Also, what responsibilities, if any, would inure to the sister's heirs of they succeed to her undivided, one half ownership in the home? Or that of the OP should he elect purchase her interest. And the resulting consequences if both interests are sold to a bfp?
Interesting state of affairs (to me at least) that might make a good bar exam question. (Thankfully it wasn't on the one I took.)
Have a good one