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My Ex-Wife and I made a monitary contract outside our uncontested divorce case to speed up the process, can she somehow screw me up?

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Goojoed

New member
What is the name of your state? New York

So long story short we made a contract, however my signature is the only one in it. Anywas the contract says i have 1 year to pay the specific amount in exchanhe for her signing the papers. She kept her part and the divorce was granted, i've been keeping mine and paying her monthly installedments. However she is becoming more aggressive now that the divorce was granted and wants me to pay sooner and it's making threats.

I want to know how much of an insurance do I have that if i finish paying her up she will have no legal case to sue me or anything? At this point she can't affect the divorce?

I'm not sure if the detail matters but she lives outside the US, I think both signatures would still matter. Our divorce was here in new york.
 


Zigner

Senior Member, Non-Attorney
There's no way anyone here can give you a definitive answer.

Having said that, my guess would be that she's blowing smoke. Finish paying per the terms of your agreement and be done with it.
 
You need to speak with an attorney. That said, anyone can sue you for anything. Should she decide to sue you, she may or may not win - there is not enough information here to venture a guess.
 

Goojoed

New member
You need to speak with an attorney. That said, anyone can sue you for anything. Should she decide to sue you, she may or may not win - there is not enough information here to venture a guess.
What kind of lawyer would i be seeking consultation with this for? The family lawyer i hired for the divorce said that this was outside the divorce type since it was an uncontested divorce, but she said we could do it under the idea that it was some sort of gift not directly involve it with the case.
 

zddoodah

Active Member
I want to know how much of an insurance do I have that if i finish paying her up she will have no legal case to sue me or anything?
No one here has read any of the documents you described, so no one here has any way of knowing.

At this point she can't affect the divorce?
Assuming your statement that "the divorce was granted" means that it's final and the court has entered a final judgment or decree, then there's your answer. Of course, there are always post-judgment motions that, in the abstract world of all that is hypothetical, could be filed.
 

LdiJ

Senior Member
What is the name of your state? New York

So long story short we made a contract, however my signature is the only one in it. Anywas the contract says i have 1 year to pay the specific amount in exchanhe for her signing the papers. She kept her part and the divorce was granted, i've been keeping mine and paying her monthly installedments. However she is becoming more aggressive now that the divorce was granted and wants me to pay sooner and it's making threats.

I want to know how much of an insurance do I have that if i finish paying her up she will have no legal case to sue me or anything? At this point she can't affect the divorce?

I'm not sure if the detail matters but she lives outside the US, I think both signatures would still matter. Our divorce was here in new york.
If the divorce is final, its final. There is a very slight chance that she could get the property settlement part of it re-opened, but nothing you have stated would be a good reason for that.
 

Goojoed

New member
No one here has read any of the documents you described, so no one here has any way of
This was the contract i signed.

"Divorce settlement

Date dd/mm/yyyy

I (my name) agree to pay the sum of XXXX dollars within one year from (said date) to (Her name) as compensation for the divorce settlement, after she files the divorce papers signed and with the stamps of the notary of the United States embassy. Delivered to my personal email."

She agreed to it but didnt sign herself. Can she modify the deal? Or this is good enough so long as I pay up? Or should i see if i can get her own signature.
 

Zigner

Senior Member, Non-Attorney
This was the contract i signed.

"Divorce settlement

Date dd/mm/yyyy

I (my name) agree to pay the sum of XXXX dollars within one year from (said date) to (Her name) as compensation for the divorce settlement, after she files the divorce papers signed and with the stamps of the notary of the United States embassy. Delivered to my personal email."

She agreed to it but didnt sign herself. Can she modify the deal? Or this is good enough so long as I pay up?]
AGAIN: Nobody here will be able to give you a definitive answer. It is, in my (and others') opinion, very unlikely that she's doing anything other than blowing smoke. Pay as agreed and worry about her doing something if she actually does something.
 

adjusterjack

Senior Member
She agreed to it but didnt sign herself. Can she modify the deal? Or this is good enough so long as I pay up? Or should i see if i can get her own signature.
I agree with the others that you need not lose any sleep over her demands.

I believe that you have an enforceable agreement even though she didn't sign it. Your performance and her acceptance of the payments should be enough to convince a judge (if it comes to that) that she agreed to the terms.

That being said, there may be an opportunity here for you. If you can come up with the cash, offer her a discounted lump sum for the remaining payments. If she accepts, just make sure you get it writing with her signature this time, before you hand over any money.
 

Zigner

Senior Member, Non-Attorney
I'm skeptical that's enforceable at all because she doesn't appear to have given any consideration for your promise to pay. Regardless, if you pay as agreed (as you appear to intend), what's your concern?
I would agree, except she may have expended money in getting the paperwork notarized, etc.
 

PayrollHRGuy

Senior Member
It actually sounds like the OP paid his wife for a divorce. Or to sign the divorce papers.

She's in another country. I doubt she is going to come back here to sue the OP.
 

not2cleverRed

Obvious Observer
She didn't sign the contract though.. so if he is relying on the writing, he has a problem.
But since she signed the divorce papers...

Either there is a contract and he "paid" for a divorce. It would be better to have that as part of the divorce - call it a negotiated settlement.

Or there isn't a contract. Then she can't claim that he "owes" her for signing the papers.

What does she want? More money, or to be still married to a guy that doesn't want her?
 

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