I disagree.
Filing a breach of contract suit makes no sense! Not when compared with the "resale" remedies as afforded by Section 2-703 of the Uniform Commercial Code - which incidentally has been adopted by all 50 states.
No sensible manufacturer would risk exchanging its property rights in goods representing its expenditures for material and labor in creating them for a precarious lawsuit and an unsecured judgment. Or abandon them in favor of a trustee in bankruptcy? That is unless one mistakenly assumes that the maker can have his cake and eat it too; that is, keep the goods and recover the price.
____________________
With respect to the matter of trademark infringement, which you and others visualize as resulting from the maker/seller disposing of the goods by public or private sale - again as permitted by the UCC): Let it be noted that:
To prevail on a cause of action for trademark infringement the trademark owner bears the burden of not only demonstrating that it has a legally protected mark, but that the defendant's used the same or a similar mark in commerce in connection with the sale or advertising of goods or services without the plaintiff's consent.
Also, that such commercial use of the mark is likely to cause confusion as to the affiliation, connection or association of defendant with plaintiff, or falsely imply plaintiff's approval of such usage. (Treatise - Cornell Law School
https://www.law.cornell.edu/wex/trademark_infringement)
And most decisive to the issue is that The Lanham (Trademark) Act 15 U.S.C. § 1114 et seq., defines the operative words "
use in commerce"as:
“Bona Fide Use of a trademark in the ordinary course of trade.”
And no one is going to be heard arguing that a seller of goods exercising default remedies under the UCC is thereby engaging in the ordinary course of trade.
Lastly, litigation involving trademark law is said to be equitable in nature. And as such equitable defenses apply. Including the
"clean hands doctrine"!