Wouldn't this "sale" be considered a contract? If so, any cause of action would be under a breach of said contract. If the buyer does not get his motorcycle and/or does not get his money, the buyer's ONLY recourse would be to come to California and sue. However, the "breach" would have occurred when the buyer failed to pick up his merchandise. The "seller" has no obligation to hold the merchandise for five years. Seeing as this is a breach, and 5 years have passed since the breach, it would fall outisde the SOL anyways. Buyer has no recourse.
This wouldn't be classified as criminal as the title was never transferred to the "buyers" name, thus the seller legally owned the vehicle at the time of it's "abandonment" upon her move three years after the "sale" of the motorcycle.