• FreeAdvice has a new Terms of Service and Privacy Policy, effective May 25, 2018.
    By continuing to use this site, you are consenting to our Terms of Service and use of cookies.

Buyer never picked it up

Accident - Bankruptcy - Criminal Law / DUI - Business - Consumer - Employment - Family - Immigration - Real Estate - Tax - Traffic - Wills   Please click a topic or scroll down for more.



rmet4nzkx

Senior Member
TheBird said:
No. He never took possession of it.
You fill out a form when you sell it, you accepted his payment, you should have filed the form, did you keep the registration up while you had it?
 
S

seniorjudge

Guest
rmet4nzkx said:
Did you file the transfer papers with the DMV after you made the sale?
TheBird, please answer the question.

"...No. He never took possession of it...."

That's not an answer.
 

TheBird

Junior Member
The bike was registered as a non operational with the state of California.
In California, you transfer the title when the buyer takes possession of it.
So no, I never filled out anything because he never came to get the bike!
 
Y

ylen13

Guest
I could be totally off base but why is this not abandoned property. she got email that told her that he can keep the motorcycle and no attempt was made by the buyer to get his money back. Buyer waited 5 years before contacting the seller and requested the bike. Wouldn't a reasonable person assume that buyer decided that he/she didn't really want the bike?

edit:correction
 
Last edited:

tijerin

Member
Wouldn't this "sale" be considered a contract? If so, any cause of action would be under a breach of said contract. If the buyer does not get his motorcycle and/or does not get his money, the buyer's ONLY recourse would be to come to California and sue. However, the "breach" would have occurred when the buyer failed to pick up his merchandise. The "seller" has no obligation to hold the merchandise for five years. Seeing as this is a breach, and 5 years have passed since the breach, it would fall outisde the SOL anyways. Buyer has no recourse.

This wouldn't be classified as criminal as the title was never transferred to the "buyers" name, thus the seller legally owned the vehicle at the time of it's "abandonment" upon her move three years after the "sale" of the motorcycle.
 

Find the Right Lawyer for Your Legal Issue!

Fast, Free, and Confidential
data-ad-format="auto">
Top