my wife and i seperated in december of 1995 and she moved out of our primary residence. we were officially divorced in may of 1997 in virginia. we did not do anything about the primary residence in the divorce settlement. hence we both still own it. she contributed to the mortgage and condo fees up until december 1995, but not since. i want to refinance now and she thinks she should get 50 percent of the current value above the curent loan balance. i thought she should get 50 percent of the value from back on december of 1995 or may of 1997 at the latest. if she is right, is their anyway she can compel me to sell or refinance at some point? oh, she lives in florida now. thanks.