Hello all, I'm hoping you can give advice and steer me in the right direction. My father had been living in Florida at his sister's second home for the past 20 years. She lives in PA. There was never any formal rental agreement, but he covered utilities, had home insurance and replaced appliances, etc. He passed away Monday. I'm from NJ, but had been in Florida staying with him since the end of November. I'm the executor of his will and he left everything to my sister and I.
Back in September, he had a stroke and after getting released from the hospital, was in a rehab center for a couple months. It was during that time, that his sister agreed to assist and pay off the rest of his motorcycle bill ($4k). He had bought the bike new for $40k. She just claimed yesterday that he said if she paid it off, she could get the money from a sale of the bike to cover house repairs which seem to be from 20 years of normal wear and tear. What doesn't make sense is that he was still in rehab at the time and believed he would recover and get back to normal living. He loved that bike and never gave me any indication that he wanted to sell it. When I spoke to him, he only told me that she agreed to cover the bill because he was unable to make payments while in rehab and because she had inherited $2 million.
Does she have any claim to the bike? The title hasn't been mailed out yet, but his mail is being forwarded to my sister's house so she should receive it. If the bike is rightfully mine and it's locked in her garage, what would I have to do to get possession? The other situation is that he has medical bills from the stroke and rehab. How do I find out if I'm responsible? Thank you in advance.
Back in September, he had a stroke and after getting released from the hospital, was in a rehab center for a couple months. It was during that time, that his sister agreed to assist and pay off the rest of his motorcycle bill ($4k). He had bought the bike new for $40k. She just claimed yesterday that he said if she paid it off, she could get the money from a sale of the bike to cover house repairs which seem to be from 20 years of normal wear and tear. What doesn't make sense is that he was still in rehab at the time and believed he would recover and get back to normal living. He loved that bike and never gave me any indication that he wanted to sell it. When I spoke to him, he only told me that she agreed to cover the bill because he was unable to make payments while in rehab and because she had inherited $2 million.
Does she have any claim to the bike? The title hasn't been mailed out yet, but his mail is being forwarded to my sister's house so she should receive it. If the bike is rightfully mine and it's locked in her garage, what would I have to do to get possession? The other situation is that he has medical bills from the stroke and rehab. How do I find out if I'm responsible? Thank you in advance.