LdiJ
Senior Member
My understanding from reading the posts is that the OP signed the contract with a three year term, and then the client changed the contract when they signed it later, to make it a one year term. So, no meeting of the minds.But there WAS a meeting of the minds when the contract was signed. The change happened later.
Now, if they were in the same room and signed at the same time, and then the client altered the contract after the fact, then I agree with you. However, that is not the way that the OP's post's read to me. I do not think that the OP has a contract copy with BOTH signatures and a non altered 3 year term.