I'm wondering why OP's attorney doesn't just hire a process server in CA to serve the subpoena there.
Because a Utah attorney cannot issue a subpoena in connection with litigation in Utah that can be enforced in California. That's why it's very important that this California corporation is qualified to do business and has a resident agent in Utah.
Let me see if I can help answer some of your questions.
Here's another question that's rather important:
Have you (through your attorney) served a subpoena on the non-party deponent? If so, was the subpoena served on the resident agent in Utah?
In my case, the 3rd party company is claiming that the Utah resident(subject of the subpoena) is being protected by privacy or disclosure laws in California that do not exist in Utah.
Ok...how did it voice this claim? If it was served with a subpoena, did it serve on your attorney written objections to the subpoena or file a motion to quash or modify the subpoena?
They are also claiming that they can't accept a subpoena via their Utah registered agent and it must first be domesticated in California and served in California to be accepted. This part my lawyer said is 100% wrong.
I agree with your lawyer.
Lawyers are only responsible for laws in their own state not the laws in foreign states or countries.
As phrased, that's not true, but I'm not sure what that has to do with anything being discussed.
It feels like it may be a bit of a unknown area of law?
Civil procedure is hardly an unknown area of law. The situation you are dealing with is relatively simple, and there are well-established laws for how to deal with it. As I mentioned previously, if your lawyer doesn't know how to deal with it, you might want to seek out one who does.
Perhaps depends on how the judge feels that day?
No.
If Marijuana is legal in California but illegal in Kentucky. Could a California company do business selling Marijuana in Kentucky and claim they are govern by California (not Kentucky) law? I am thinking probably not?
Who cares? This has nothing to do with your case.
Are you saying that a registered agent gives the company the ability to be sued in that state( not just documents served)?
I didn't say that, and it's not quite true. If a corporation is incorporated in State X and is also qualified to do business in State Y, it must appoint a resident agent in State Y. Becoming qualified to do business in State Y, not the appointment of the agent, is what makes the corporation subject to suit in State Y.
P.S. I assume I know the company with whom you're dealing and, if I'm right, that company will go to significant lengths in the name of privacy protection, so your lawyer is going to need to be aggressive and seek an appropriate court order.