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Double Jeapordy

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What is the name of your state (only U.S. law)? Ky

In 2007 I was charged with a DUI, I had a court/bench trial. 5 people testified. I was found not-guilty.

On June 3, 2008, I had a hearing before the DRC on my ex husbands motion to modify custody.

During the hearing, the officer from this charge was allowed to testify. I was not informed prior to the hearing that he would be testifying. I am pretty certain my attorney objected to his testimony .(despite my consistent efforts over the last 2 weeks, I have been unable to obtain a DVD of the hearing to be 100% sure of the objection and grounds for the same). If I recall correctly, the DRC overruled the objection because the ex's attorney was trying to "establish a pattern." (I plead guilty to DUI charges 4 years ago).

Because I did not know he would be testifying, I was obviouslly unable to call witnesses to rebut his testimony. I testified about the charge. In her report and recommendation the judge wrote:

"While there was insufficient evidence to convict Mrs. Dunaway of the DUI charge beyond a reasonable doubt, the standard before this court is preponderance of the evidence. This court finds Mrs. Dunaway was operating a vehicle while impaired on July 8th."

I know there can be criminal and civil actions related to the same incident (OJ murder/wrongful death), but I am not being sued in civil court for DUI...am I?

Can they really do that? Its not like two separate charges (like OJ...murder/wrongful death) its DUI...not guilty, DUI...guilty.

I have argued in my exceptions that it should not have been admitted, and that at minimum I should have had opportunity to call witnesses to rebut the testimony.

I currently have 3 other motions pending (motion to alter, amend, or vacate; motion for additional findings; motion for new hearing). This issue is stated within these motions as well.

Is there any case law that would help argue the double jeapordy in this situation?
 
Last edited:


Zigner

Senior Member, Non-Attorney
What is the name of your state (only U.S. law)? Ky

In 2007 I was charged with a DUI, I had a court/bench trial. 5 people testified. I was found not-guilty.

On June 3, 2008, I had a hearing before the DRC on my ex husbands motion to modify custody.

During the hearing, the officer from this charge was allowed to testify. I was not informed prior to the hearing that he would be testifying. I am pretty certain my attorney objected to his testimony .(despite my consistent efforts over the last 2 weeks, I have been unable to obtain a DVD of the hearing to be 100% sure of the objection and grounds for the same). If I recall correctly, the DRC overruled the objection because the ex's attorney was trying to "establish a pattern." (I plead guilty to DUI charges 4 years ago).

Because I did not know he would be testifying, I was obviouslly unable to call witnesses to rebut his testimony. I testified about the charge. In her report and recommendation the judge wrote:

"While there was insufficient evidence to convict Mrs. Dunaway of the DUI charge beyond a reasonable doubt, the standard before this court is preponderance of the evidence. This court finds Mrs. Dunaway was operating a vehicle while impaired on July 8th."

I know there can be criminal and civil actions related to the same incident (OJ murder/wrongful death), but I am not being sued in civil court for DUI...am I?

Can they really do that? Its not like two separate charges (like OJ...murder/wrongful death) its DUI...not guilty, DUI...guilty.

I have argued in my exceptions that it should not have been admitted, and that at minimum I should have had opportunity to call witnesses to rebut the testimony.

I currently have 3 other motions pending (motion to alter, amend, or vacate; motion for additional findings; motion for new hearing). This issue is stated within these motions as well.

Is there any case law that would help argue the double jeapordy in this situation?
Didn't like the answer you got the first time?

https://forum.freeadvice.com/showthread.php?t=419931
 
No, I didn't like the first answer. I am, obviouslly, having an "acceptance" issue. I just thought maybe the fact that both criminal and civil were the same charge might be significant....guess not.
 

seniorjudge

Senior Member
No, I didn't like the first answer. I am, obviouslly, having an "acceptance" issue. I just thought maybe the fact that both criminal and civil were the same charge might be significant....guess not.
They are NOT the same charge:

Its not double jeopardy. Its just like when you are found not guilty of murder and then sued for wrongful death and found liable. Its not double jeopardy because, as you said, one is criminal and the other civil and the reason you can be acquitted and yet still held responsible in the civil hearing is because they use two completely different standards of proof.
You were already told this.
 

justalayman

Senior Member
How about a different answer altogether.

Obviously this is not double jeopardy (one of my favorite game shows) because this was not a trial and you were not the defendant. There was no punitive action available whether the judge deemed you guilty or not. It was a hearing which the judge sought all the information available. It was was a hearing for child custody and all the situation about the DUI was that it was evidence of a pattern of drinking inappropriately.

Now, do you like this one better?

A preponderance of evidence? I do not believe he needed that. All he needed was a reasonable suspicion. As I said, you were not on trial. It was merely a gathering of facts used to make a determination for your custody situation.

So, if you believe you have been wronged and it was based to a GREAT extent on the incorrect information, then gather your proof and seek a new hearing for modification.

Simple?

I thought so.
 
How about a different answer altogether.

Obviously this is not double jeopardy (one of my favorite game shows) because this was not a trial and you were not the defendant. There was no punitive action available whether the judge deemed you guilty or not. It was a hearing which the judge sought all the information available. It was was a hearing for child custody and all the situation about the DUI was that it was evidence of a pattern of drinking inappropriately.

Now, do you like this one better?

A preponderance of evidence? I do not believe he needed that. All he needed was a reasonable suspicion. As I said, you were not on trial. It was merely a gathering of facts used to make a determination for your custody situation.

So, if you believe you have been wronged and it was based to a GREAT extent on the incorrect information, then gather your proof and seek a new hearing for modification.

Simple?

I thought so.
I have a motion for new hearing pending, is that what you mean when you say "new hearing for modification"?
 

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