A "Lady's" grandfather just passed away in Florida. He was in a recent 2nd marriage (about 9 years). He (2) and his wife (5) had both had kids from previous marriages and none together. One of his children was predeceased (the father of this "Lady"). The grandfather's Will has language stating he intended to treat the wife's children as his own and his wife's children's "Descendants" as his own. The 6 living 1st generation children are getting different percentages (2 children getting significantly more). Also named in the will is one of the wife's grandchildren (having a living parent) and the "Lady" (his only grandchild, with predeceased father).
Question 1: The predeceased child of the grandfather is not mentioned (by name) at all in the will (a share that would normally pass on to this "Lady" as it is her father). Is a predeceased child still considered one of the children when it comes to inheritance? If the intent was to essentially treat all children the same, would the deceased child need to be specified in some way since they had descendants down the line? Would they have to be formally disinherited in the will to be excluded if the intent was to treat all similarly?
Question 2: The "Lady" has 3 children of her own ("descendants" of the grandfathers predeceased child). These descendants were also not mentioned by name in the Will. If the intent was to essentially treat all children's "descendants" the same, yet some grandchildren are getting a share and they are not, is that a contradiction? The "lady" is listed as getting a portion of the small remaining share being split up between the wife's 4 children and 1 grandchild, then her.
Question 3: The "Lady" is in disbelief that the grandfather would have intentionally left out his deceased child's portion, along with 3 living descendants of that child. Does this create an ambiguity or a contradiction that can be contested?
So far, the "Lady" has not been able to read the Will herself as she is out of state. She has been getting this information from her aunt (the grandfathers only living child of his own). The Lady plans to get a copy of the will once it is filed.
Question 1: The predeceased child of the grandfather is not mentioned (by name) at all in the will (a share that would normally pass on to this "Lady" as it is her father). Is a predeceased child still considered one of the children when it comes to inheritance? If the intent was to essentially treat all children the same, would the deceased child need to be specified in some way since they had descendants down the line? Would they have to be formally disinherited in the will to be excluded if the intent was to treat all similarly?
Question 2: The "Lady" has 3 children of her own ("descendants" of the grandfathers predeceased child). These descendants were also not mentioned by name in the Will. If the intent was to essentially treat all children's "descendants" the same, yet some grandchildren are getting a share and they are not, is that a contradiction? The "lady" is listed as getting a portion of the small remaining share being split up between the wife's 4 children and 1 grandchild, then her.
Question 3: The "Lady" is in disbelief that the grandfather would have intentionally left out his deceased child's portion, along with 3 living descendants of that child. Does this create an ambiguity or a contradiction that can be contested?
So far, the "Lady" has not been able to read the Will herself as she is out of state. She has been getting this information from her aunt (the grandfathers only living child of his own). The Lady plans to get a copy of the will once it is filed.