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BOR

Senior Member
Doing some back reading, interesting thread, concerning your post 12;

https://forum.freeadvice.com/arrests-searches-warrants-procedure-26/illegal-search-465773.html

For all you constitutional scholars;

this just seems to be wrong. Is there not some constitutional support for contesting this level of crime for such a minor violation, especially considering the realistic possibility it was written as such only to allow otherwise unavailable actions (arrest and searches)?
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In Ohio here most traffic laws are Minor Misdemeanors, which are not arrestable, except if the person refuses to sign the citation, etc.

HOWEVER, a Municipality has Ohio Constitutional authority to classify any Ordinance of thiers an MM or above, as long as state law is not undercut, meaning if state law is an M-4, a city can have it as an M-4, 3-2-1, but NOT MM. Any offense M-4 and above is an arrestable offense, this includes a burnt out tail light.

Any offense over MM is triable by jury though, an MM is not. While it is unlikely an arrest will happen for such, it is never the less authorized by law.

Long before Knowles v. Iowa, we could not search "incident to citation", State v. Darrah.

The Terry case was a Cleveland case, and I have read not only the Appeals court decision on it, but the OSC decision before SCOTUS.

They are detailed about what constitutes an arrest, and transportation to a facility to answer for a crime is "an arrest in the traditional sense".

Now, there is case law from the 6th Circuit that says the mere placement of a person in the back of a police car (emphasis added), is an arrest, however, this is NOT an arrest that would authorize a search "incident to arrest" for 4th AM purposes.
 
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justalayman

Senior Member
This is just going to be one of those things I will just never agree with.

Especially since jail time is not an option for the "crime", it will simply boggle my mind that it is allowable to arrest a person for the "crime". Somewhere along the line in our system I had always believed the punishment must fit the crime. While the arrest itself is obviously not considered to be part of the possible punishment, it surely becomes a defacto punishment with the officer in charge of imposing the sentence which is just plain wrong.

As well, fact that incarceration is not an option as a punishment, to me, this simply shows an underlying justification in the allowance of arrest for the crime.


In the other thread, I kept getting told "it's the law so it's legal to do" yet nobody was interested in answering the question of; why should it be legal? I never had an argument that since it is the law, what happened was legal, generally speaking. I simply disagree with how or why the law can be considered to be legal.

So, what is the justification behind allowing for one to be arrested in such a situation?
 

BOR

Senior Member
In the other thread, I kept getting told "it's the law so it's legal to do" yet nobody was interested in answering the question of; why should it be legal? I never had an argument that since it is the law, what happened was legal, generally speaking. I simply disagree with how or why the law can be considered to be legal.

So, what is the justification behind allowing for one to be arrested in such a situation?
I also disagree strongly with Atwater. If the offense has no jail time as a possible penalty, what do you call a full custodial arrest? Gail Atwater spent 2 or 3 hours at the police station I think.

There are not too many 4th AM decisions I disagree with off the top of my head, but Atwater is one.

Here is the most recent OSC decision on the Atwater topic, and the SC of Montana has a rule as Ohio does, it provides greater protection than the 4th here.

Although the OSC has ruled that our S & S clause is "co-extensive" with the federal 4th, there are a few exceptions, Brown being one.

http://caselaw.lp.findlaw.com/data2/ohiostatecases/2003/2003-ohio-3931.pdf
 

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