We were divorced in August of 99 and a child support order was in that decree. I paid for two months and then my ex dropped the requirement, mostly due to the state not getting the money to her in a timely fashion. So she and I went to the courthouse and she signed a release.
The date of the Motion To Dismiss was clocked by the court on 25 Oct 1999 and reads as follows:
"The undersigned Represents and states that it is his/her wish to dismiss the Respondent's support obligation and forgive all arrearage. It is respectfully requested that the Court enter its Order terminating and ending its action. ORDER The above request having been given consideration, IT IS THEREFORE ORDERED that the within action be terminated and ended without prejudice to any of the parties herein. AND IT IS SO ORDERED"
We both agreed on an amount and I paid that religiously every month since then. She gave my parents temporary custody in 2002 and then they sued to retain full custody. There was a lengthy battle for custody, but in the end, she regained custody in November of 2002.
On the newest order, which is dated 22 Nov 2002, it referenced the original divorce decree from August 1999 (not mentioning the Motion To Dismiss order from October 1999), citing that I was ordered to pay child support and that I would continue to pay her child support. The actual wording is:
"The Father will continue to pay child support of $X per month as he has with the [parents (names removed)] and will pay this directly to the mother."
While my parents had custody, I sent them the child support. All of this was told to the judge. So the judge added that blurb in the 2002 order. So, do I have to petition the court to stop this action or do I just stop paying since I am not going through the state? Can a judge just override another judge if an order is already in place? What if the judge did not know about the Motion To Dismiss?