Question
I'm not an attorney, but what I don't understand his how anyone else can force you to allow them to use your property, especially in a case like this when they already have a driveway and carport on the right side of their house. Do they use that one on the right side at all?
Maybe I could understand it better if they didn't already have a driveway and carport there on the right side and were just using the easement, maybe easement isn't the right word here, to get into their "backyard carport", but since they have one driveway and carport already on the right side of the house it sounds ludicrous to force you, especially expecting you to foot all the usage/upkeep/maintenance bills ect. of what they get to use for free? Maybe I've watched too many John Wayne movies while growing up in the 50's and 60's, but what's mine is mine, and this sure smells of abusing you for free getting to use your property against your wishes, especially since you've stated you don't want them to, and even with zero help in maintaining what they're using to top it off! Something really sounds backwards about that!
Maybe one of you legal eagles out there can help those of us less knowledgable of the law understand why, just because a previous owner allowed someone to use their property, that after they sell or die off, that this previous favor or nice gesture has to be forced upon the next owner in this manner, especially when they don't want that to continue. I've always looked at my property as being just that, my property, and if I don't want someone on my property then they best stay off. That may be the redneck way of looking at it, but I just don't get it since these people already have another driveway and carport. Good Lord, how many do they need?
SnowCajun