quincy
Senior Member
First, it is not "my" assumption. It is a legal presumption recognized in Texas.I am sorry but I think that you are dead wrong. You are making the assumption that any gift is automatically considered a loan in TX without evidence to the effect that it was a gift. Even under your assumption, the fact that the title was put in the name of someone else, with no lien included on said title, is evidence enough of the gift.
On top of that, the title is in the name of a THIRD party to the transaction. I cannot fathom why you are giving this OP any encouragement at all.
Provide evidence please to support your statements. Thanks.