Since owning is also possession, then the same offense (possession) covers both.
If I pay for it and someone else transports and holds it, I may not be in possession, but I am part of a conspiracy for sales or distribution.
There is no crime that I am aware of that requires OWNERSHIP of a drug.
What?
A crime is generally defined as ... An act or omission, by a person, in violation of a statutory law, for which there is a prescribed punishment. If you think injury, damage or a breach of the peace is required to make it a crime, you have been reading some of the wrong legal books.
As an example, here is the definition in MY state of California from Penal Code section 15:
15. A crime or public offense is an act committed or omitted in
violation of a law forbidding or commanding it, and to which is
annexed, upon conviction, either of the following punishments:
1. Death;
2. Imprisonment;
3. Fine;
4. Removal from office; or,
5. Disqualification to hold and enjoy any office of honor, trust,
or profit in this State.
Funny how the defense bar has not figured that one out and how people get convicted for drug possession all the time, and how the courts have upheld drug laws all the way to the USSC.
By definition, if there is a valid statute covering it, it is a "crime."
You are not the only one to make this fringe argument. Many others here, on the internet, and in the courts have posted this opinion and they are just plain wrong. You may WANT the law to be that way, but it is not. You can argue how you would like to see the law til the cows come home, but it will no change the legal reality.
Tell you what, YOU get a majority of like-minded folks in your state legislature or the Congress, and you can try to change the laws to reflect this concept of yours. The heck with all the administrative, procedural, and order laws that exist - we'll just live in chaos until someone kills someone else ... just as long as we don't try them in a court with gold fringe on the flag!