• FreeAdvice has a new Terms of Service and Privacy Policy, effective May 25, 2018.
    By continuing to use this site, you are consenting to our Terms of Service and use of cookies.

Is this contract binding

Accident - Bankruptcy - Criminal Law / DUI - Business - Consumer - Employment - Family - Immigration - Real Estate - Tax - Traffic - Wills   Please click a topic or scroll down for more.

Taxing Matters

Overtaxed Member
The mortgage company is still trying to collect the amount owed.
How is the mortgage lender trying to collect? The house is apparently no longer owned by the husband so foreclosure is not on the table at this point. The lender would have to sue to obtain a judgment to collect anything else on the loan. Has the lender done that?
 


How is the mortgage lender trying to collect? The house is apparently no longer owned by the husband so foreclosure is not on the table at this point. The lender would have to sue to obtain a judgment to collect anything else on the loan. Has the lender done that?
Collection agency keeps sending letters.
 

Zigner

Senior Member, Non-Attorney
Medical records showing he was undergoing chemotherapy and narcotics at the time. He had home health care so I'm pretty sure there is records there.
Again, undergoing chemo and being prescribed narcotics does not necessarily mean that one is incompetent.
 

quincy

Senior Member
The ex wife has been paying on the debt. She acknowledges her part.
Thanks for the additional information.

Although I don’t think it too likely that the man can escape his own obligation, the balance remaining on the loan is high. It might be smart for him to speak to some attorneys in his area to see what they think.

If he doesn’t have an income or attachable assets, by the way, he could also be judgment proof, should the creditor decide to sue.
 

Zigner

Senior Member, Non-Attorney
The fact that he didn't argue the validity of the contract during his divorce means something too... Not that it has a direct bearing on the matter, of course.
 

LdiJ

Senior Member
Ok so sorry. Yes he was married at the time it was signed. Him and his wife took out a second mortgage. He owned the house prior to the marriage. It was signed in 2008. The house itself no longer exists. The mortgage company is still trying to collect the amount owed. Yes his wife knew he could not read and that he was under the use of medications that can impair judgement. The amount was around 40000. Their is still about 20000 owed.
In what manner does the house no longer exist? Was it repo'd, destroyed in some way? Sold somehow without there being a lien from the mortgage company? Explain that part.
 

Find the Right Lawyer for Your Legal Issue!

Fast, Free, and Confidential
data-ad-format="auto">
Top