adjusterjack
Senior Member
Maybe you overlooked this.I don't know why the need to discuss a wage earner's exemption. Nothing you've reported that I recall suggests that the debtor is claiming it. But for whatever and for numerous obvious reasons - given the circumstances you've related - FS 222.1 SIMPLY DOES NOT FIT!
It certainly opens a discussion about what the debtor is likely to do if the OP files for wage garnishment.The debtor is the only person in his home who has job (he works as an employee for a big company). His wife makes around 3K per year by doing some odd jobs. They have no children. His salary is directly deposited into a tenants by entirety joint bank account with his wife. These facts are true for the last 5-6 years at least. He transferred that 9K from that tenants by entirety joint bank account to his wife’s personal bank account. Debtor stated that his salary is protected for up to 6 months due to his head of family status
Right now, the debtor saying his wages are exempt is as meaningless as saying "I'm judgment proof." Might be true but it's irrelevant until an attempt is made to enforce the judgment.
That's right. The debtor's financial circumstances can change. He could end up divorced or widowed and then his wages and bank accounts will become fair game.Also, PLEASE don't be misled to believe that any post-judgment efforts of yours - past or future - will constitute a waiver or somehow exhaust your rights to continually assert those remedies. No one is counting - (as someone has erroneously proposed).
As long as your judgment remains active and unsatisfied (and the debtor doesn't attempt to rinse the obligation in bankruptcy) you are at liberty to accordingly hound this deadbeat 'til the cows come home.