What is the name of your state? Florida
My husband and I have been married 11 years. We had a prenup stating all assets prior to marriage were not marital property. Three years after we were married, he surprised me by adding my name to the title of his house. There were significant tax savings to him by doing that. We sold that property and have gone on to buy other properties and investments from those proceeds which for the most part are titled in both our names. We sold our primary residence August, 2019, as we wanted to move to France. He is a French National and through our marriage is now an American citizen. January, 2020 he took the proceeds from the sale of our home in Florida and put the house in France solely in his name. He says he did it for inheritance purposes and that I would have full right to stay in the house until I die. The only document I’ve seen that says this states something like “per the prenuptual agreement the house was purchased with assets acquired prior to our marriage and I have no right to the house. His son prepared that document and would be his sole beneficiary. It’s obvious to me that he is no longer acting in my best interest. My questions are: Am I right to assume that once he added me to the title of property that gives me 1/2 ownership? Even if I now no longer have a interest in French house, can he in any way sell investment property we own in Florida without my knowledge? I worked full-time until five years ago when he asked me to retire so we could travel, now I feel he’s taking away my security as I would have kept on working if I didn’t know we had assets together. I would like to go home and see a Florida attorney but I am in confined in France. Also, besides real estate we have purchased two boats during our marriage; however, they are titled in his name only, would they be considered marital assets as well?
My husband and I have been married 11 years. We had a prenup stating all assets prior to marriage were not marital property. Three years after we were married, he surprised me by adding my name to the title of his house. There were significant tax savings to him by doing that. We sold that property and have gone on to buy other properties and investments from those proceeds which for the most part are titled in both our names. We sold our primary residence August, 2019, as we wanted to move to France. He is a French National and through our marriage is now an American citizen. January, 2020 he took the proceeds from the sale of our home in Florida and put the house in France solely in his name. He says he did it for inheritance purposes and that I would have full right to stay in the house until I die. The only document I’ve seen that says this states something like “per the prenuptual agreement the house was purchased with assets acquired prior to our marriage and I have no right to the house. His son prepared that document and would be his sole beneficiary. It’s obvious to me that he is no longer acting in my best interest. My questions are: Am I right to assume that once he added me to the title of property that gives me 1/2 ownership? Even if I now no longer have a interest in French house, can he in any way sell investment property we own in Florida without my knowledge? I worked full-time until five years ago when he asked me to retire so we could travel, now I feel he’s taking away my security as I would have kept on working if I didn’t know we had assets together. I would like to go home and see a Florida attorney but I am in confined in France. Also, besides real estate we have purchased two boats during our marriage; however, they are titled in his name only, would they be considered marital assets as well?
