What is the name of your state (only U.S. law)? VA
My ex-husband and I have been divorced for over three years. We both still own the house, but I live in it. He is saying that I need to take over the full mortgage payment starting this month. The mortgage is in both of our names.
I pulled out our divorce agreement to see what it says about the residence. It says "the Husband agrees to be solely responsible for all mortgage payments until May 2006. Starting June 2006, Husband will pay one-half of the mortgage until June 2009, at that time the parties shall place the house on the market for sale, and upon sale and closing, to divide any proceeds equally."
It doesn't say anything about who pays the mortgage after June 2009, until the house sells. We are putting it on the market next week. My ex is saying that I am now responsible for the full mortgage amount, but I say that based on that verbage, I could just as easily say HE is responsible for the full amount.
(BTW - I waived child support and alimony because I didn't want things to get messy and I wanted to keep the house as long as I could.)
Do we need to go to court or mediation to get this resolved? I told him that if I pay the full amount of the mortgage, I want to receive more than 50% when we sell, since I would be paying more for who knows how long. I've been paying 60% of the mortgage for a year and a half (had a roomate move in and agreed to pay more than 50% upon his insistence).
Any thoughts?
My ex-husband and I have been divorced for over three years. We both still own the house, but I live in it. He is saying that I need to take over the full mortgage payment starting this month. The mortgage is in both of our names.
I pulled out our divorce agreement to see what it says about the residence. It says "the Husband agrees to be solely responsible for all mortgage payments until May 2006. Starting June 2006, Husband will pay one-half of the mortgage until June 2009, at that time the parties shall place the house on the market for sale, and upon sale and closing, to divide any proceeds equally."
It doesn't say anything about who pays the mortgage after June 2009, until the house sells. We are putting it on the market next week. My ex is saying that I am now responsible for the full mortgage amount, but I say that based on that verbage, I could just as easily say HE is responsible for the full amount.
(BTW - I waived child support and alimony because I didn't want things to get messy and I wanted to keep the house as long as I could.)
Do we need to go to court or mediation to get this resolved? I told him that if I pay the full amount of the mortgage, I want to receive more than 50% when we sell, since I would be paying more for who knows how long. I've been paying 60% of the mortgage for a year and a half (had a roomate move in and agreed to pay more than 50% upon his insistence).
Any thoughts?