Joe Potter
Member
I have what I believe could be a novel legal situation, and wish to receive input from anyone willing to comment on the situation, approach, possible avenues to pursue, and likely outcome. First, no legal action has been filed at this time, so I will be speculating about possible causes of action in the future. Here is a very brief history;
Person A (A) purchased a 20 acre parcel of land in a remote California subdivision in the early 1970’s, and immediately began exploring the surrounding unimproved parcels. Over a period of nearly 30 years he, and his parents, children, siblings, grandchildren, “family” (A+) all used two of the parcels (lot 1) and (Lot 2), owned by the same person (B),for access to a pond, as well as many other uses (cutting trees for firewood, target practice, hunting, etc.). In the late 1990’s (B) stopped paying property taxes on (Lot 2) and it was sold at public County tax auction to (A) in 2001. (A+) continued to use (Lot 1) and increased the types, and frequency of use over the next 20+ years. In 2022, the son of (B), person (C), came to the subdivision and spoke with (A). (C) told (A) that he had inherited (Lot 1) from (B) who was deceased, and that he wanted to sell it. (A) informed (C) that there were prescriptive easements on the land. (C) said he didn’t care, and would sell (Lot 1) without disclosing anything about (A)’s use of (Lot 1), saying, “ it will be between you and the new owner”. (A+ ) sent a letter to the realtor that had the listing , person (D), and informed (D) of the claim of prescriptive rights, and their duty to disclose. (A+) received a reply letter from a local attorney (E)in response, demanding that (A+) stop using (Lot 1), along with a cease and desist notice. A couple of months later, (A) acquired a copy of a grant deed transferring (Lot 1) from (C) to a buyer in Georgia (F). (A) sent a letter to (F) asking to speak with them about issues that might affect (F)’s newly acquired parcel. (A) then received a reply from (E) indicating that he also represented (F), and to stop using the parcel, stop harassing (F), and that (F) never wanted to hear from (A) again, or there would be litigation. It has now been nearly two years since the transfer/sale, from (C) to (F),and there has been no sign that (F) has visited the property. (A+) continue to use (Lot 1) for all of the earlier uses as well as for access to parts of (Lot 2). (A) never met, or saw (B) during (B)’s lifetime, and there is no evidence that (B), or (C) ever visited (Lot 1) or (Lot 2) during the last nearly 50 years.
(A+) is very familiar with California Prescriptive easement law, and feels that they have a solid, well documented case for multiple prescriptive rights on (lot 1), which can be considered an unrecorded ownership interest in the land, but not fee simple interest through adverse possession, because (B), and (C) always paid the property taxes on( lot 1). The real questions then are as follows;
If, and to what extent did (C),(D), and (E) have a duty to disclose material facts that affect the marketability, desirability, and value of (Lot 1), to a purchaser,(F)?
(A+) has a very strong suspicion that (C), (D), and (E) conspired to commit fraud, through non-disclosure of those facts. However, (A+) cannot prove that theory, because (E) continues to prevent contact between (A+) and (F) under threat of litigation. Only (F) knows what was disclosed at the time of sale. How can/should (A+) proceed, and how does this affect tolling of the Statute of limitations for fraud, and separately, for fraud with a realtor.
Does (E) have an unwaivable conflict of interest by representing the seller, and the allegedly defrauded buyer at the same time?
If, and to what extent can (A+) claim actionable fraud, as a result of the co-conspirators selling property that was partially “owned” by (A+)?
Because there are no “out of pocket” damages to (A+), could (A+) claim collateral damages, and then ask for punitive damages as a result? What kind of collateral damages would be possible?
Any other thoughts, or input regarding this case? Any pertinent case law, that can be cited for further research?
Person A (A) purchased a 20 acre parcel of land in a remote California subdivision in the early 1970’s, and immediately began exploring the surrounding unimproved parcels. Over a period of nearly 30 years he, and his parents, children, siblings, grandchildren, “family” (A+) all used two of the parcels (lot 1) and (Lot 2), owned by the same person (B),for access to a pond, as well as many other uses (cutting trees for firewood, target practice, hunting, etc.). In the late 1990’s (B) stopped paying property taxes on (Lot 2) and it was sold at public County tax auction to (A) in 2001. (A+) continued to use (Lot 1) and increased the types, and frequency of use over the next 20+ years. In 2022, the son of (B), person (C), came to the subdivision and spoke with (A). (C) told (A) that he had inherited (Lot 1) from (B) who was deceased, and that he wanted to sell it. (A) informed (C) that there were prescriptive easements on the land. (C) said he didn’t care, and would sell (Lot 1) without disclosing anything about (A)’s use of (Lot 1), saying, “ it will be between you and the new owner”. (A+ ) sent a letter to the realtor that had the listing , person (D), and informed (D) of the claim of prescriptive rights, and their duty to disclose. (A+) received a reply letter from a local attorney (E)in response, demanding that (A+) stop using (Lot 1), along with a cease and desist notice. A couple of months later, (A) acquired a copy of a grant deed transferring (Lot 1) from (C) to a buyer in Georgia (F). (A) sent a letter to (F) asking to speak with them about issues that might affect (F)’s newly acquired parcel. (A) then received a reply from (E) indicating that he also represented (F), and to stop using the parcel, stop harassing (F), and that (F) never wanted to hear from (A) again, or there would be litigation. It has now been nearly two years since the transfer/sale, from (C) to (F),and there has been no sign that (F) has visited the property. (A+) continue to use (Lot 1) for all of the earlier uses as well as for access to parts of (Lot 2). (A) never met, or saw (B) during (B)’s lifetime, and there is no evidence that (B), or (C) ever visited (Lot 1) or (Lot 2) during the last nearly 50 years.
(A+) is very familiar with California Prescriptive easement law, and feels that they have a solid, well documented case for multiple prescriptive rights on (lot 1), which can be considered an unrecorded ownership interest in the land, but not fee simple interest through adverse possession, because (B), and (C) always paid the property taxes on( lot 1). The real questions then are as follows;
If, and to what extent did (C),(D), and (E) have a duty to disclose material facts that affect the marketability, desirability, and value of (Lot 1), to a purchaser,(F)?
(A+) has a very strong suspicion that (C), (D), and (E) conspired to commit fraud, through non-disclosure of those facts. However, (A+) cannot prove that theory, because (E) continues to prevent contact between (A+) and (F) under threat of litigation. Only (F) knows what was disclosed at the time of sale. How can/should (A+) proceed, and how does this affect tolling of the Statute of limitations for fraud, and separately, for fraud with a realtor.
Does (E) have an unwaivable conflict of interest by representing the seller, and the allegedly defrauded buyer at the same time?
If, and to what extent can (A+) claim actionable fraud, as a result of the co-conspirators selling property that was partially “owned” by (A+)?
Because there are no “out of pocket” damages to (A+), could (A+) claim collateral damages, and then ask for punitive damages as a result? What kind of collateral damages would be possible?
Any other thoughts, or input regarding this case? Any pertinent case law, that can be cited for further research?