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Prenatal Rights of Father

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Katy W.

Member
As far as forcing someone into treatment, the only way would be involuntary committment, and you would need WAY more than a suspicion of drug use or that. In most (but not all) states you would have to prove that the mother is an immediate danger to herself and/or others.
 

nextwife

Senior Member
ANY alchohol or drug consumption during pregnancy creaters a "danger" of FAS/FAE or other PERMANANT developmental impairment of the fetus. Studies have been unable to determine that there is a cut-off between a "safe level" of consumption and consumption that will create a lifetime of problems for the child being carried. I have many friends in the adoption community parenting such children - FAS/FAE from either foster care or soviet block orphanages. And the ravages of alchohol on a developing fetus cannot be understated. There is NO safe level of exposure!!!!!!

Our poster may be supporting this child for life if she continues to prenatally abuse it and impair it's brain.
 
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rmet4nzkx

Senior Member
Smarty Panties said:
I had to pee in a cup at every prenatal visit but it never occured to me they might check for drugs. Maybe he could ask the doctor to check her urine or suggest he should to look for drugs?
They are checking for sugar in the urine, for gestational diabetes. However they can check for drugs if there is reason to.
 

rmet4nzkx

Senior Member
A number of states have prenatal testing programs, Alabama is not one of them, however, a note to the doctor with the concern may allow the OB to bring up the quesiton without violating her rights, the child can be tested upon birth. Here is alink to a chart with state requirements.
http://www.agi-usa.org/pubs/ib_006.pdf The print is pretty small.
 

webbieswork

Junior Member
Nextwife, I honestly don't think this woman is abusing alcohol. If she were consistently drunk, I think he would have a bit more than suspicion to go on! I know that her doctor gave her permission for a single glass of wine at a family dinner over the holidays and that she took him up on it. The husband wasn't happy about it and I think that triggered the rest of this. What I am after is the LEGAL criteria for "danger to herself and others" as a means of involuntary comittment. And actually, at this point, I am asking for academic purposes and my own curiosity.

met4nzkx, thank you for the link! So Alabama doesn't test PERIOD? But they can? Does this mean her doc CAN test without her permission either gestationally or at birth? What would the ramifications of a positive test be? Does he need "probable cause" criteria? Does anyone know what qualifies?

Again, I really appreciate all the input. I'm getting quite the education here! After reading South Carolina v Whitner (which I believe has been overturned by the Supreme Court) during the course of this argument between husband and wife, I have grown extrememly curious about what is and is not going on in the world of law on this.

I can certainly see both sides and it's a fascinating debate! Thanx for helping me out!
 
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