Nextwife, I honestly don't think this woman is abusing alcohol. If she were consistently drunk, I think he would have a bit more than suspicion to go on! I know that her doctor gave her permission for a single glass of wine at a family dinner over the holidays and that she took him up on it. The husband wasn't happy about it and I think that triggered the rest of this. What I am after is the LEGAL criteria for "danger to herself and others" as a means of involuntary comittment. And actually, at this point, I am asking for academic purposes and my own curiosity.
met4nzkx, thank you for the link! So Alabama doesn't test PERIOD? But they can? Does this mean her doc CAN test without her permission either gestationally or at birth? What would the ramifications of a positive test be? Does he need "probable cause" criteria? Does anyone know what qualifies?
Again, I really appreciate all the input. I'm getting quite the education here! After reading South Carolina v Whitner (which I believe has been overturned by the Supreme Court) during the course of this argument between husband and wife, I have grown extrememly curious about what is and is not going on in the world of law on this.
I can certainly see both sides and it's a fascinating debate! Thanx for helping me out!