GeorgeJetson
Junior Member
I'm in California and I think I got this right but I'm hoping for confirmation.
I purchased a house completely in my name in the year 2000 which we both moved into but we did not got married until 2002. From my interpretation of the definition (DivorceNet - California Community Property FAQ's) this is considered separate property, Correct?
Thank you,
George
I purchased a house completely in my name in the year 2000 which we both moved into but we did not got married until 2002. From my interpretation of the definition (DivorceNet - California Community Property FAQ's) this is considered separate property, Correct?
Thank you,
George