douglasssmith
Member
How does the law handle a situation where two composers create and copyright essentially the same tune independently within two years of each other -- and it can be shown that the creation was almost certainly independent? Does the law say no harm, no foul and no one gets damages because the creation was independent? Or must the second person pay the first because the first was damaged, even if the damage was completely innocent?
No live case here. Just curious based on how a 60-year-old similar situation was handled.
No live case here. Just curious based on how a 60-year-old similar situation was handled.