Aaron13100
Member
@adjusterjack This is helpful. Thanks for the link. It seems that the spouse there filed to dismiss the case whereas my spouse and I are in complete agreement on every aspect of the divorce. (uncontested) It does mention: the residence "must not be a residence solely for the purpose of procuring a divorce[.]" Id. (quoting Snyder, 35 N.W.2d at 34); How that's determined isn't mentioned. Which is pretty similar to my initial question...That's unlikely to work.
See Rush v. Rush and Parsley v. Parsley:
https://scholar.google.com/scholar_case?case=6820005022951601550&q=25-4-30&hl=en&as_sdt=4,42
https://scholar.google.com/scholar_case?case=12547655803634494271&q=25-4-30&hl=en&as_sdt=4,42
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