Use of Joint Credit After Divorce

[Ohiogal]

One more time folks...


The $400 we are talking about was incurred AFTER the divorce was finalized. The $400 was not involved in any fraud on the court because it didn't exist at the time of the divorce.

THE CREDIT CARD EXISTED. The credit card had a balance at the time of the divorce. THAT is the fraud I am talking about.

 

[Bali Hai]

One more time folks...


The $400 we are talking about was incurred AFTER the divorce was finalized. The $400 was not involved in any fraud on the court because it didn't exist at the time of the divorce.

The parties didn't choose to involve the court with the marital credit card debt. So why should the court get involved in the post divorce credit card issues? OP has learned a $400 lesson.

 

[tuffbrk]

OP did not sign for the new charge. I'd pay the previous balance and not pay off the $400. The ex signed for an item, let them pay for it. If they don't - oh well. He is the primary cardholder and they will go after him first anyway. If he doesn't pay it, I'm shrugging but there's no emoticon for that!. To each their own but I'd take a $400 hit on my credit. I'd explain it away with the credit reporting agencies and provide the documentation from the CC Company that confirms the signature of the party that charged the item. For a $400 item? It's really not going to be an issue.

On the other hand, I'd pay off the balance I owe or transfer it to another card as soon as possible and then ensure that the statement address is changed to that of the ex. Will be difficult for him to argue anywhere that it is the responsibility of the OP to pay it off when the item was charged after the divorce.

 

[Zigner]

THE CREDIT CARD EXISTED. The credit card had a balance at the time of the divorce. THAT is the fraud I am talking about.

Yes, the balance at the time of the divorce *may* be construed as fraud.

But, it has no bearing on the $400 in question now.


We're not talking about any other balance on the card at the time of the divorce - we're specifically talking about the $400 that was incurred post-divorce. How could the OP have ever included the $400 in the divorce? It didn't exist as a debt prior to the finalization of the divorce.

 

[Zigner]

OP did not sign for the new charge. I'd pay the previous balance and not pay off the $400. The ex signed for an item, let them pay for it. If they don't - oh well. He is the primary cardholder and they will go after him first anyway. If he doesn't pay it, I'm shrugging but there's no emoticon for that!. To each their own but I'd take a $400 hit on my credit. I'd explain it away with the credit reporting agencies and provide the documentation from the CC Company that confirms the signature of the party that charged the item. For a $400 item? It's really not going to be an issue.

On the other hand, I'd pay off the balance I owe or transfer it to another card as soon as possible and then ensure that the statement address is changed to that of the ex. Will be difficult for him to argue anywhere that it is the responsibility of the OP to pay it off when the item was charged after the divorce.

That's fine for you. However, perhaps the OP doesn't want to take a hit on the credit report. OP can pay the $400 and sue the ex for it.

 

[tuffbrk]

I absolutely agree that the OP can do that as well. As mentioned - to each their own.

 

[Bali Hai]

That's fine for you. However, perhaps the OP doesn't want to take a hit on the credit report. OP can pay the $400 and sue the ex for it.

OP's ex obviously owes the $400. According to OP, the ex has an axe to grind. Giving OP a hard time by using the CC and sticking her with the bill is his way of evening up the score. It doesn't matter to ex if OP goes to court and collects or not. OP should remember that what goes around, comes around.