NY
My wife and I separated in Oct. 2018.
At the time I had Class B Common Non-voting shares in the privately held company that I worked for 100,00 shares (5% holdings).
In 2022 I was let go due to breach of the shareholders agreement and the company bought back the shares at a nominal value (was paid $0.50 total).
My wife and get lawyer will likely argue that in that in 2018 the shares had value -
I'm wondering how valid my argument (to follow) would be and how a judge might respond to it:
I would argue - in accordance with the shareholders' agreement, the value of the shares was contingent upon the worst-case scenario outlined in the agreement. As the agreement explicitly allowed the company to buy back shares at a nominal value if a breach occurred, and such a breach did happen, the actual value of the shares aligned with this predetermined scenario.
The foreseeability of this risk was inherent in the known terms of the agreement, and the subsequent buyback was not an unforeseen event but rather a contractual consequence.
In other words - the hopes and dreams was that these shares at the time of separation would be worth something but, they could also be worth nothing if the contract was breached - which it was later on although the "later on" part is irrelevant -- my main argument is that the value of the shares was contingent upon the worst case scenario (breach of contract).
Thanks.
My wife and I separated in Oct. 2018.
At the time I had Class B Common Non-voting shares in the privately held company that I worked for 100,00 shares (5% holdings).
In 2022 I was let go due to breach of the shareholders agreement and the company bought back the shares at a nominal value (was paid $0.50 total).
My wife and get lawyer will likely argue that in that in 2018 the shares had value -
I'm wondering how valid my argument (to follow) would be and how a judge might respond to it:
I would argue - in accordance with the shareholders' agreement, the value of the shares was contingent upon the worst-case scenario outlined in the agreement. As the agreement explicitly allowed the company to buy back shares at a nominal value if a breach occurred, and such a breach did happen, the actual value of the shares aligned with this predetermined scenario.
The foreseeability of this risk was inherent in the known terms of the agreement, and the subsequent buyback was not an unforeseen event but rather a contractual consequence.
In other words - the hopes and dreams was that these shares at the time of separation would be worth something but, they could also be worth nothing if the contract was breached - which it was later on although the "later on" part is irrelevant -- my main argument is that the value of the shares was contingent upon the worst case scenario (breach of contract).
Thanks.