My son bought a used vehicle that was inspected about 1 month prior to the date on which he bought it.
I've edited that quote to say what I think you meant to say. Am I correct? If so, for what purpose was the vehicle inspected?
Also, I assume that the seller gave no warranty when the vehicle was sold. Correct?
But sense the inspection station who inspected the car are they responsibl?
I have a hard time imagining any circumstance under which the person/entity who conducted the inspection could possibly have liability to your son.
Our DPW says they will go after the station who inspected the car
DPW? Department of Public Works? Database Publishing Wizard?
What does "go after" mean in this context?
Did the seller give your son that report? If so, your son represented that the inspection report was accurate.
I think there's a typo here. The seller giving the inspection report to the OP's son (the buyer) would not constitute any sort of representation by the buyer. I assume you meant to say "the buyer represented," but I disagree that the seller giving the buyer the inspection report constitutes a representation by the seller that the report was accurate. For all we know, the buyer asked about the car's condition and the seller said something like, "It seems fine to me. I'm not really a car guy, but I got this inspection done a month ago, so I guess it's fine."
His reliance on their apparent fraudulent claims should not be an out for them.
Well...even if there was a misrepresentation of a material fact, the plaintiff still has to provide intent or negligence AND that reliance on the misrepresentation was reasonable. The extent to which the damage was apparent might cut in the buyer's favor as it relates to a misrepresentation, but it also cuts against any reliance being reasonable.