MiseryInNJ
Member
Hmm, well, verbally we'd always said and understood that I contributed pretty much everything, money wise, up front.
However, since we did the home purchases after marriage, on paper, the house is jointly owned.
On the other hand, there's obviously a paper-trail that shows where the big down payment as well as repayment of my wife's debts originally came from. I don't think my wife would ever actually deny, if asked, where that bulk of money came from, though.
So I guess this means that if we don't come to an agreed settlement on our own, the court will treat the house as 50-50?
If so, what happens to the bank account? That is something we'd always verbally considered jointly owned, but on paper it's strictly in my name. What happens there, in the view of the courts?
However, since we did the home purchases after marriage, on paper, the house is jointly owned.
On the other hand, there's obviously a paper-trail that shows where the big down payment as well as repayment of my wife's debts originally came from. I don't think my wife would ever actually deny, if asked, where that bulk of money came from, though.
So I guess this means that if we don't come to an agreed settlement on our own, the court will treat the house as 50-50?
If so, what happens to the bank account? That is something we'd always verbally considered jointly owned, but on paper it's strictly in my name. What happens there, in the view of the courts?