What they did was change the meaning of the evidence. For instance, in the MTD, the evidence had a meaning that they used in their argument, but then later, they said the evidence didn't have the same meaning. So this is allowed? That seems careless and I'm quite surprised. They didn't win on MTD but if they did, and confused the evidence, isn't that a rule 403 violation? Confusion of the issues?
The withdrawal motion said that Defendant consented so it appears that the bigger firm wished to withdraw. I thought they had to list the reasons for it no?
Thanks for being so very helpful again!