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Would this be considered harrassment? Debt collectors question

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I checked for deletions and as usual you don't know what you are talking about.
I'll second that. chien thinks he is so educated in all 50 states on all matters ranging from consumer law, criminal law and now insurance laws. i bet he failed every one of his attempts to pass the bar after graduating at the bottom of his class at some community college's law school (that or he just is pretending...lol)
 


moburkes

Senior Member
What they are doing is total harassment and your mother should send them a cease and desist letter. That letter allows them to only communicate by letter.
Jinky, above is what you originally said.

DC responded by (accurately) saying:
2. A cease and desist does not allow CAs to only contact a debt by mail -- it is an order to cease all contact short of a lawsuit. There is no remedy to provide contact only by mail in the law as written and interpreted.
Jinky responded by saying (incorrectly):
A Debtcollector never likes to hear the truth.
Then Chien provides the actual LAW (accurately):
c) CEASING COMMUNICATION. If a consumer notifies a debt collector in writing that the consumer refuses to pay a debt or that the consumer wishes the debt collector to cease further communication with the consumer, the debt collector shall not communicate further with the consumer with respect to such debt, except --
(1) to advise the consumer that the debt collector's further efforts are being terminated;
(2) to notify the consumer that the debt collector or creditor may invoke specified remedies which are ordinarily invoked by such debt collector or creditor; or
(3) where applicable, to notify the consumer that the debt collector or creditor intends to invoke a specified remedy.
Then jinky responds (inaccurately):
And yes, it allows the creditor to communicate ONE more time by letter.
Cause you DO realize, Jinky, that ALL of the court paperwork, for example, will be "written communication", and based on the above logic, they're only allowed to send 1 additional letter. That means that once they send a letter stating that they are going to sue, then the court wouldn't be able to provide summons, court date information, outcome information, etc, NOR would the debt collector be able to begin collection efforts from the judgment, right?
 
Cause you DO realize, Jinky, that ALL of the court paperwork, for example, will be "written communication", and based on the above logic, they're only allowed to send 1 additional letter. That means that once they send a letter stating that they are going to sue, then the court wouldn't be able to provide summons, court date information, outcome information, etc, NOR would the debt collector be able to begin collection efforts from the judgment, right?
idiot....
that doesnt apply to the court. only the DC.

a C&D letter is for the DC, not the courts. if they sue, then the summons comes from the court. dig your head out of the sand. if the DC is going to sue, then sue. the C&D is to stop further communications and not to threaten with lawsuit unless they do.:rolleyes:
 

moburkes

Senior Member
idiot....
that doesnt apply to the court. only the DC.

a C&D letter is for the DC, not the courts. if they sue, then the summons comes from the court. dig your head out of the sand. if the DC is going to sue, then sue. the C&D is to stop further communications and not to threaten with lawsuit unless they do.:rolleyes:
I realize that the courts will provide COURT information. What I was describing was a timeline of events which would lead up to a judgment. After that judgment, they will begin to communicate to collect their debt.

Interesting to note that you didn't comment on the REST of the stuff that I provided in order to show that Jinky didn't give correct information.
 
I realize that the courts will provide COURT information. What I was describing was a timeline of events which would lead up to a judgment. After that judgment, they will begin to communicate to collect their debt.

Interesting to note that you didn't comment on the REST of the stuff that I provided in order to show that Jinky didn't give correct information.
well, i guess if they were to win a judgment, then they would be entitled to seek it and communicate. until then...they would not have the right to. you are stopping them from communicating with you until they do get it, not before they do.
 

Chien

Senior Member
No, Breeze. You are incorrect. This is an unresolved issue. There is and has been a very lively and articulate on-going debate (and I use that word in the best sense, as referring to an informed and regulated discussion between matched sides) on the appropriate scope of the word _communication_.

The FTC, which had accepted public comments up to this month, for the stated purpose of clarifying the FDCPA, has yet to propose anticipated revisions. However, with respect to _communication_, the issue is whether the present language of the FDCPA requires the _mini-miranda_ on legal pleadings.

There are attorneys who have taken the most conservative approach and have included it, despite the fact that the majority view is that it is unnecessary. This view is bolstered by the argument that, in fact, it is the Clerk of the Court who technically issues the Summons, and the Clerk has never been interpreted to be within the scope of and subject to the FDCPA.

The point to be derived from this information, for you and for jinky, is that _communication_ is presently defined by the Act as _the conveying of information regarding a debt directly or indirectly to any person through any medium_ (my emphasis). I trust there is no dispute about that.

It follows that, pending further clarification, Mo_s original position was arguably correct and yours was not.

It follows that your concluding remark about having no further right to communicate pre-judgment is, in fact, still open to debate and interpretation. In instances where the CA and the plaintiff_s attorney are agents of the creditor (which, contrary to your JDB_s, is the majority of the time), or the attorney is agent for the CA, legal responsibility of the principal may be imputed to the agent. There is still no _clear bright line_.

It also follows that jinky_s _clarification_, does not address the issue fully. The _clarification_ only pertains to communication from the CA and, in my opinion, was misleading in any event. If you would prefer more euphemistic terms, I_ll settle for _highly ambiguous_. It would have reflected more favorably on the member, if the clarification were offered in lieu of the derogation of DC. Instead, the _clarification_ was offered when confronted with the language of the Act.
 
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Weren't you sued? Where'd you get your summons from? (I wasn't aware any court was in the process server business).

Pot, kettle. Kettle, pot.
I said....."then the summons comes from the court."

since I failed to draw pictures so you could understand. that means the SUMMONS comes from the court, not who SERVES it. the court issues the summons and a server delivers it. the process server doesnt type up and enter in the lawsuit. the planitiff files a lawsuit into the court, the court issues a lawsuit summons and the server delivers it. duh:rolleyes:
 
As a concluding point, when you preface a response by “idiot”, or include statements such as “dig your had out of the sand”, you are signaling an ad hominem response.
btw, head, not "had"...just a friendly correction...lol

i didnt say...YOU IDIOT or CHIEN IS AN IDIOT...i simply said IDIOT. don't put words in my mouth. if i was calling him an IDIOT, I would have said "moburkes, YOU ARE AN IDIOT". kettle pot, pot kettle.
 
For someone whose sig line reads:


You certainly have no problem passing them out.
No, moburkes. You are incorrect. (oops, i am starting to sound like someone else here...lol)

there are a few select people here who have nothing better to do or offer except give their opinion about someone else's correct or incorrect opinions. I could do the same thing and say that you are INCORRECT every time you utter something.
 

moburkes

Senior Member
GB: Chien did NOT say that you called anyone an idiot. Chien said that when you preface your response, which you DID do, that way...

Also, why wouldn't someone correct someone who made a fase statement? Are we supposed to pretend that the false information is accurate? That makes NO sense. None whatsoever.

Oftentimes, one enters into the "conversation" (read: thread) after other people have already responded. Sometimes the responses are accurate, and sometimes they are not. But, it makes no sense NOT to correct the person providing incorrect or inaccurate information. And, in this thread, jinky's information was incorrect.

Your first response on this post made sense:
a quick question. i have never had anything repo but...if someone fell behind in payments and was not able to catch up, why wouldnt they just try and sell it and cover the debt before it gets tasken and sold for 1/3 of the debt? if i bought a car for 20k and made payments for 3 years and got the loan down below what it was worth, it seems that someone might be able to sell it for at least what it was worth so as to pay off the loan...a lot better than owing the remaining 12k on a car you dont have no more...
The response that you received, agreed with you.

Your next response offered no value, except to "make fun of" another poster who provided extremely accurate legal advice.

I'll second that. chien thinks he is so educated in all 50 states on all matters ranging from consumer law, criminal law and now insurance laws. i bet he failed every one of his attempts to pass the bar after graduating at the bottom of his class at some community college's law school (that or he just is pretending...lol)
Your next response, to me, said "idiot".

The next response backtracked slightly:
well, i guess if they were to win a judgment, then they would be entitled to seek it and communicate. until then...they would not have the right to. you are stopping them from communicating with you until they do get it, not before they do.
The next 2 people explained where you erred in your response to me. And, besides correcting someone's spelling, you said that someone put words in your mouth, which they clearly didn't. (See above re: "idiot")

My point, other than your original response to the poster, (which made a helluva lotta sense), you haven't added to the conversation. You've made some incorrect statements, which did need to be corrected. Yep, we make mistakes. It is so much simpler to correct yourself or apologize. Instead you continue to wrongly argue your point, which benefits no one, especially not the OP.
 

fairisfair

Senior Member
I said....."then the summons comes from the court."

since I failed to draw pictures so you could understand. that means the SUMMONS comes from the court, not who SERVES it. the court issues the summons and a server delivers it. the process server doesnt type up and enter in the lawsuit. the planitiff files a lawsuit into the court, the court issues a lawsuit summons and the server delivers it. duh:rolleyes:
Yeah, what does he know???. . . he's only an attorney.:rolleyes:

and you are??? what is it again??


and omygosh, as if this whole thread wasn't bad enough. . . must we really have a reiteration of every post????:eek:
 

You Are Guilty

Senior Member
Ah I enjoy it. Without going into too much detail, let's just say I am intimately familiar with people suing debt collectors and I'm not particularly inclined to tell people what they're doing wrong with their lawsuits. As far as I'm concerned, the more bad advice given to debtors, the earlier I go home each day :D
 

moburkes

Senior Member
Where did I attack anyone character here? Perhaps this is just another case of something you no nothing about.

BTW, I still haven't found those posts that you accused me of deleting.
It does not say that you attacked anyone's character. It says
As you and jinky are undoubtedly aware, this is an attack on an opponent’s character
Can you read?
 
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