The first is not particularly well worded, which is an open door for litigation later if the parties disagree over it. However, very generally the term "vests" tells you the point at which the benefit is guaranteed and cannot be taken away. So the first one may well result in a situation in which the co-founder has to stay the full five years to be guaranteed to get his equity; if he leaves before then he may forfeit all of it. The second, by contrast, simply gives him outright the 2.5% each year, and once given cannot be taken away. In either case if he stays the full five years he gets the 12.5%. It's what happens if he leaves during the 5 years where the outcome may be different. Of course, the other provisions of the contract and other evidence of intent may affect the outcomes, especially the first one. These kinds of contracts need to be very carefully drafted to ensure that the result the parties want is the result they actually get.
Thank you so much for your intelligent answer! (Seems that everyone else on here is just playing games.) So, if I may further this example (though poorly worded, I know - feel free to make suggestions
) to make my point as to the differences that I am potentially envisioning between the two scenarios I am trying to describe.
We have two scenarios:
SCENARIO A) a contract that states the member gets 12.5% equity (upfront), but vested over 5 years (2.5%/year) for a total of 12.5% equity
SCENARIO B) a contract that states that the member starts at 0% equity and gets 2.5% equity per year for 5 years for a total of 12.5% equity
Say the company is an LLC that becomes profitable in the second year, and the members decide to do a distribution at the end of 2 full years. In Scenario A after 2 full years, the member would still get a distribution of the full 12.5% into some type of equity account, though the member could not access the full amount of money until after 5 years. Whereas in Scenario B after 2 full years, the member would get a distribution of 5% that is fully accessible. In the end, assuming the member stays for at least 5 years, Scenario A would be a more lucrative option because the member would not be shorted on distributions during the vesting period. To your point, a real contract would need to worded properly and more clearly than my non-business self is able to articulate here, but do you understand the point I am trying to make here? Is my assessment of the differences in these scenarios correct?