Taxing Matters
Overtaxed Member
I disagree. You are declaring the sale to automatically violate this statute though there is nothing in the facts that indicates the product sold is either adulterated or misbranded. In order for the statute to be violated, the sale must involve a misbranded or adulterated product. Adulterated means that the product has been changed in some manner. Misbranded means that the product is in someway mislabeled such that the contents are not as described. The samples the OP has are unused and sealed. That pretty much tells me that they are neither misbranded or adulterated. Finally, note that it is the burden of the government to prove the misbranding or adulteration; it is not the burden of the seller prove it is isn't. Violations either result in criminal prosecution or civil fines imposed by the FDA; there is no private cause of action authorized for these violations. Of course if the product actually caused harm normal tort remedies would apply.If it was introduced into interstate commerce, it is in violation of the 21 USC 331.
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