Can we charge a customers card for their debt

[Tink11464]

Whether YOU think it is or not, or intended it as such, the fact it, taking money without the appropriate agreement in advance is STEALING. Zigner characterized it exactly correctly.

If you accepted orders based on other means to pay, and they fail to pay, you can certainly demand payment. But you can't just make up a check because you know their account number, even though if they issued a check, that would be payment. You can't just make up a card charge, even though if they authorized the charge, that would be payment. You CAN refuse to take future orders from them ... even prepaid ones.

As for charging much later in time, you will need to refer to your merchant agreement.

Thank you cosine - I didn't know the answer that's why i asked. I just thought since they had their card on file, and if we called with our intentions and the did not refute it - we could charge the card. I would NEVER steal from someone - that was not my intent at all. After it's been pointed out that that's exactly what it is - I would never think to do that. I just did not know the answer to the question - I absolutely understand now. Thank you again to everyone!!! You guys really are the best for FREE ADVICE!

 

[RemitAdvice]

It would depend on the terms of your payment agreement/schedule with the customer.

Great. I'll make sure that gets included in 'z' 'fine print'...'preciate the eye opener.