I think the only thing that has been made clear in this thread is that there is a difference of opinion as to whether the LL is liable for anything.Now what if the carry-out business expanded their lease space after we signed our lease ? Wouldn't the landlord have to enforce the non-compete addendum then , seeing that their lease contract would have either been redone or extended to accommodate they added lease space ?
Not only would that be inappropriate, it could subject the OP to sanctions for abuse of process.Would you sue the take-out place and seek an injunction against selling ice cream?
The other tenant was already under a lease When op signed their Lease. There was no non-compete clause to be concerned with when the other tenant signed their lease so the landlord cannot retroactively change it.I disagree wtih Justa on this. If the landlord issued a lease to another business that didn't protect the exclusivity in the poster's lease, they are indeed liable. The landlord can not retroactively apply changes to the other party's lease but they certainly are responsible for not providing the exclusivity.
...which brings us back, more or less, to https://forum.freeadvice.com/threads/enforcing-lease-addendum.647970/page-2#post-3558316No, it does not make it worthless. It's not incumbent on the lessee to know what the terms of the other lessees are. The lessor put the non-compete in and is not in compliance. They have breached the lease terms.
Yes , our intent for adding the addendum to our lease was for any incoming tenant because at the time of us signing our lease they ( take-out ) did not sell ice cream or any kind of dessert items at that time . During the time we have occupied they have expanded to two other units . They started selling / advertising ice cream when the first additional space was added. We notified the LL and they stopped selling their product. Now the product they are selling is being advertised as " its not ice cream , its Shizzle " ( look up meaning on internet - good laugh ) .The other tenant was already under a lease When op signed their Lease. There was no non-compete clause to be concerned with when the other tenant signed their lease so the landlord cannot retroactively change it.
That makes the non-compete clause the op enjoys worthless when it comes to tenants that were there before op was.
Just a point...the other party expanded their space, therefore causing new lease(s) to be written. A party cannot take addition space without new lease(s) being written. So, there should have been a restriction listed in the new lease. If the landlord messed up that, its on the landlord.Once again, if the other party has no such restriction in their lease, then they can continue to sell their (whatever they want to call it). Your recourse is not against them. Any recourse you may have would be against the LL, and that brings us, once again, to https://forum.freeadvice.com/threads/enforcing-lease-addendum.647970/page-2#post-3558316
Why not? It's certainly not the case in general.Just a point...the other party expanded their space, therefore causing new lease(s) to be written. A party cannot take addition space without new lease(s) being written. So, there should have been a restriction listed in the new lease. If the landlord messed up that, its on the landlord.
Yes, it absolutely IS the case in general. Commercial landlords do not increase a tenant's space without requiring the tenant to sign a new lease, or at least a brand new separate lease for the additional space. It would be absurd not to do so.Why not? It's certainly not the case in general.