• FreeAdvice has a new Terms of Service and Privacy Policy, effective May 25, 2018.
    By continuing to use this site, you are consenting to our Terms of Service and use of cookies.


Accident - Bankruptcy - Criminal Law / DUI - Business - Consumer - Employment - Family - Immigration - Real Estate - Tax - Traffic - Wills   Please click a topic or scroll down for more.


Senior Member, Non-Attorney
If the home was awarded to the OP, and the spouse is no longer an owner, why not? If the OP were the sole legal owner, then the spouse would be there unlawfully.
Because the deed still reflects them both as owners. You may be right in that the court may look at the paperwork and consider the other party to no longer be an owner, bit it's just as possible that the court will refuse to hear the matter and refer the OP back to the court that issued the order (family court).

Sponsored Ad