EX WIFE WONT VACATE MARITAL HOME

[Zigner]

If the home was awarded to the OP, and the spouse is no longer an owner, why not? If the OP were the sole legal owner, then the spouse would be there unlawfully.

Because the deed still reflects them both as owners. You may be right in that the court may look at the paperwork and consider the other party to no longer be an owner, bit it's just as possible that the court will refuse to hear the matter and refer the OP back to the court that issued the order (family court).