• FreeAdvice has a new Terms of Service and Privacy Policy, effective May 25, 2018.
    By continuing to use this site, you are consenting to our Terms of Service and use of cookies.

Help

Accident - Bankruptcy - Criminal Law / DUI - Business - Consumer - Employment - Family - Immigration - Real Estate - Tax - Traffic - Wills   Please click a topic or scroll down for more.



not2cleverRed

Obvious Observer
She has no income and hasnt put in anything to the home not even sweat equity.
Does. Not. Matter.

She is your wife. That home, legally, is just as much hers as yours.

Texas is a community property state. I suggest you use your google fu: "What are marital assets in Texas."

P.S. Sorry, somehow when I scrolled back I read TX. Michigan is an equitable distribution state. However, you are still trying to hide a marital asset.
 
Last edited:

Shadowbunny

Queen of the Not-Rights
This is just a guess, but I have a feeling that OP was doing a handshake-deal from a family member to buy said trailer and probably hasn't finished paying for it yet. Now that divorce is looming, he wants to protect said trailer from his wife's clutches. (And not that any of this would matter to hapless OP, as TX is STILL a community property state.)
 

Zigner

Senior Member, Non-Attorney
I agree - but I'd really like the OP to clarify this. Call it morbid curiosity ;)
 

LdiJ

Senior Member
That makes no sense. If you own the house, then it would be in your name. How did you buy it if it's not in your name?

Another point is that you KNOW that the house is marital property and that you both bought it together...why else would you say "The house is still in the person we bought it from"? You are clear that you and your wife bought it ("we").
He bought the property at a tax auction and its not in their name yet. Not unusual. It takes a while sometimes.
 

not2cleverRed

Obvious Observer
Yes...to me that means that he received a tax return and used it for a down payment/purchase of the home.
And somehow he doesn't get that the tax refund is marital money. Unless, of course, he married Dec 31st or thereabouts that tax year, or at least didn't earn money after marrying. Or some other convoluted thing.

But if he was married that entire year, and the taxable income was all marital, I'm not seeing how the tax refund could be anything but marital $.
 

not2cleverRed

Obvious Observer
by the way i keep seeing texas im from michigan
One person - me - referred to TX in one post.

Regardless, based on what you have described, you want to hide a marital asset by retitling it over to a relative. This is wasteful dissipation of a marital asset.

Because you have so little in the way of assets, your wife might choose not to pursue it, due to the legal cost. But it paints a very clear image of you here, and the type of person you are. If it goes before a judge, s/he might have the same impression of you, which makes you wife look a whole lot more credible.

You are being stupid, and potentially shooting yourself in the foot.
 

Find the Right Lawyer for Your Legal Issue!

Fast, Free, and Confidential
data-ad-format="auto">
Top