**EDIT**
I see what I did wrong and it would have helped if I read my post over again.
I used the dallasdivorcelawyerblog.com to get the case name. I used the case in a different tab (obviously) and searched for the key phrase (bold and underlined) in the actual case.
However, when I transferred the information to my posting, I must have clicked on the wrong page/tab (as it can be seen by the text below, I thought it was a "CASE" but I was not paying enough attention to see that I grabbed the information from the website and not the case.
That is only 1 of many cases as an example that marriage or change of home does constitute a change of material circumstance (at least here in Texas).
The case was cited within the text... but I did not read it enough to figure out that I posted the wrong information and for that I am sorry.
It was not intentional.
You used copyrig ht-protected material, taken not from a case but from a website that wrote about the case.
Correct, and I failed to make a proper citation on the text that I did use. Fully accidental.
Without further explanation, "I wrote my reply" certainly does mean that you wrote it all. Be gracious and admit (and fix) your mistake and move on. There's no reason to be so obtuse about it.
You are 100% correct in my need to fix my error. Fixed my error by linking the site.
As far as being obtuse about it, I have no issues stating that I was wrong...
I have issue when someone calls me a LIAR when I made a simple ERROR.
There is a distinct difference between an error and lying about something.
I made a mistake out my not clearly citing where I got a small portion of my post.
I think it is clear when I was citing multiple cases, statutes, rule/regulations, etc that I had more than just one singular source.
It is within reason that I did not recognize that I missed a cite:
@stealth2
I am not sure what you are saying here
I think it is within reason that the question from
@stealth2 did not directly point out what he was asking:
Please cite your sources. The person/people who wrote what you posted in your reply to me (i.e. not you - I found it elsewhere) deserves attribution.
I think it is reasonable that I was not attempting to deceive anyone and made a simple mistake.
Is there a particular phrase or quote that you are asking about?
Did you ever abuse your ex wife? How about your kids? Why is she saying you did?
As far as I can answer that is, at least in Texas, when filing for a divorce, a party can request that children be brought back to their county of residence (i.e. where they lived for an extended period of time).
This is exactly what I did when I filed for divorce.
On the other hand, a party can get permission from a court to keep the children in their current place if they make allegations of potential harm to the children.
This is what my ex did in her sworn affidavit to the court after she was served with divorce papers.
(the timing of all documents is all part of the court paperwork).
The court then makes a decision that the children can stay where they are at until an investigation is complete/mediation/temporary orders are in place (as far as my understanding).
To answer your question about abuse... I never abused my ex and never abused the children.
In the 16 years we were married, no abuse has gone on.
Why did she say this... I would guess to initiate the knee jerk reaction from the court that would allow her to keep the children in the county that she was staying (4 hours away).
Otherwise, she would have to bring them back to the county where we lived.
Since I was given by the court full and exclusive use of the house, she would have no place to stay.
So she made claims of abuse via sworn affidavit to the court after she was served with divorce papers.
After mediation, when she did not get what she wanted, she made a police report about abuse... (this was 5 months after she claims the abuse happen).
The police investigated and closed the case unfounded.
No arrests were made.
No restraining orders were issued.
Hope that clear up those questions.