Yes, for sure. The facts do speak for themselves.
On a related topic: the relevant statutes seem to be re breach of contract, not fraud - fraud seems to refer back to the breach of contract statutes. Is that usual?
Here's one part...does this relate?
72.7110 Buyer’s remedies in general; buyer’s security interest in rejected goods. (1) Where the seller fails to make delivery or repudiates or the buyer rightfully rejects or justifiably revokes acceptance then with respect to any goods involved, and with respect to the whole if the breach goes to the whole contract as provided in ORS 72.6120, the buyer may cancel and whether or not the buyer has done so may in addition to recovering so much of the price as has been paid:
(a) “Cover” and have damages under ORS 72.7120 as to all the goods affected whether or not they have been identified to the contract; or
(b) Recover damages for nondelivery as provided in ORS 72.7130.
(2) Where the seller fails to deliver or repudiates the buyer may also:
(a) If the goods have been identified recover them as provided in ORS 72.5020; or
(b) In a proper case obtain specific performance or replevy the goods as provided in ORS 72.7160.
(3) On rightful rejection or justifiable revocation of acceptance a buyer has a security interest in goods in the possession or control of the buyer for any payments made on their price and any expenses reasonably incurred in their inspection, receipt, transportation, care and custody and may hold such goods and resell them in like manner as an aggrieved seller as provided in ORS 72.7060. [1961 c.726 §72.7110]
Here's another that may relate?
72.7140 Buyer’s damages for breach in regard to accepted goods. (1) Where the buyer has accepted goods and given notification as provided in ORS 72.6070 (3) the buyer may recover as damages for any nonconformity of tender the loss resulting in the ordinary course of events from the seller’s breach as determined in any manner which is reasonable.
(2) The measure of damages for breach of warranty is the difference at the time and place of acceptance between the value of the goods accepted and the value they would have had if they had been as warranted, unless special circumstances show proximate damages of a different amount.
(3) In a proper case any incidental and consequential damages under ORS 72.7150 may also be recovered. [1961 c.726 §72.7140]
https://www.oregonlegislature.gov/bills_laws/ors/ors072.html
Am I on the right track? BTW the seller msg'd me today and claimed that since we liked the chair, he considered it a final sale and said "no matter what someone may have told you afterwards, my description was accurate". I asked him to clarify that he'd be standing by his representation that he bought the chair at DWR, and haven't heard back...my next step is to file. No more communication.
Isn't a scam a scam even if someone initially falls for the misrepresentation and realizes the truth afterwards? I mean, Trump University? (not to get political - it's just a factual situation) Or someone who represents a cubic zirconia as a diamond? Even if the zirconia buyer 'liked' the stone and paid for it, the buyer would be justified in getting a refund once the truth comes out, yes? Where is a precedent I can quote, or how do I need to make this argument?
I am really trying to learn this as fast as I can and so greatly appreciate your thoughts...and fwiw, I am more used to sharing my expertise (not law, obviously--writing, editing, dramaturgy, believe it or not--advanced degrees) with others whenever possible, so it's odd to be on the receiving end