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Ex Wife is breaking court order "moral clause"

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summerdawn

Senior Member
Okay - so Mom was under no obligation to make the child available, since it would appear that it's not court-ordered. As for running the plates? How do you propose to do that? I don't think regular citizens can just go ask the cops to do so. And it's unethical for cops to do it for personal reasons.



Well, a lot of folks aren't, and since we don't know you from Adam... How to prove it? Tell Dad to start laying out the $$$ for a PI. And then expect the judge to tell him to get over himself because....



... Dad is also in contempt if that's what the order states - because YOU are not blood related either and should not be in the home when the child is there at night. What now, hon?
Asking out of curiosity...if he missed his visit because it was Mother's Day, and he was making it up, isn't that court ordered? :confused: The girls' dad just had the girls yesterday because his next visit would have fallen on Mother's Day, which is my time. The court order states that if his visit falls on my Mother's Day, or if my visit falls on his Father's Day, we can make up our visit by taking the Sunday preceeding our day...I thought that was a standard clause?
 

summerdawn

Senior Member
Your hubby and his ex will have been EXes only for a year at this point. You moved in kinda quick huh? Married daddy and jumped into his bed.
Now mom is pregnant for the second time in seven months you state-- you are aware that conception could take place at ANY time and not just between the hours of 10pm and 8 am -- this abstinence only education is definitely NOT a good thing if you didn't know that.



You also don't know if mom bought a new car, has borrowed the car, is storing the car for someone or a variety of other things.


You do not have the power to run the plates. You are aware of that aren't you?



WE don't have to know anything. YOU are so overstepping and butting in it is not even funny.




Giid gruef,



I'm offended that a legal stranger feels it is her business to be this far up into mom's business. WE didn't have a right to "get him". No right at all.



We being worried doesn't matter.


First, a kid is a baby goat.
Second, this is not your kid or your child. YOU are not a party to this.



Dad is NOT entitled makeup time for mother's day. Nor is mom entitled makeup time for Father's Day. Unless the court order SPECIFICALLY states that.



You are smart but not smart enough to spell credible. You are not smart enough to understand that you are now and always will be a legal stranger. You are not smart enough to know that YOU are aiding dad in breaking the morals clause. Shall I continue with how not smart you are?


I repeat you are non blood as well. And you sleep over with your husband. And since you say nothing about junior having to be there then you are in violation 365 days of the year. Bet mom is not in violation that often at this juncture. (Oh and if she is pregnant an argument can be made that daddy of said baby IS a blood relation due to the fact that she is related to the baby, her son is related to the baby and the baby's father is related to the baby by BLOOD/genetics/DNA). So dad is STILL more in the wrong than mom on that note. Because you are not pregnant or you would have been bragging (yes I said bragging) about that and how you are a better pregnant person than mom because you are married and mom is not and blah blah blah.

I need to get the papers out to get a quote.

Aha! That answers my previous question. Thanks OG.

Op, is there a clause in dad's CO that says he can make up Father's Day?
 

Ohiogal

Queen Bee
Aha! That answers my previous question. Thanks OG.

Op, is there a clause in dad's CO that says he can make up Father's Day?
Dad doesn't need to make up Father's day. He is dad. And usually parents don't get to make up these days because dad gets father's day and mom gets Mother's day.
 

penelope10

Senior Member
Dad doesn't need to make up Father's day. He is dad. And usually parents don't get to make up these days because dad gets father's day and mom gets Mother's day.
So Stepmommy is getting all in a lather over something Hubby could possibly not be entitled to anyway. In other words a make up day.
 

Ohiogal

Queen Bee
So Stepmommy is getting all in a lather over something Hubby could possibly not be entitled to anyway. In other words a make up day.
Yep. But it sure does make stepmommy feel so much more superior to mom. I am still waiting for the language on the no overnight non-blood related people.
 

penelope10

Senior Member
Yep. But it sure does make stepmommy feel so much more superior to mom. I am still waiting for the language on the no overnight non-blood related people.
Me too. Wonder if the clause might somehow tie in to SS. (A non-cohabitation clause perhaps if the clause exists....)? Just guessing---like I said in another post my Magic Eight Ball is not always 100%.;)

Dern, when are these SUPER NEW MOMMIES and SUPER NEW DADDIES ever going to stop coming out of the woodwork?:mad:
 

stealth2

Under the Radar Member
Asking out of curiosity...if he missed his visit because it was Mother's Day, and he was making it up, isn't that court ordered? :confused: The girls' dad just had the girls yesterday because his next visit would have fallen on Mother's Day, which is my time. The court order states that if his visit falls on my Mother's Day, or if my visit falls on his Father's Day, we can make up our visit by taking the Sunday preceeding our day...I thought that was a standard clause?
What OP wrote was:

However, we were supposed to get his son this afternoon to spend the night (it was agreed upon) due to next sunday being Mother's day and she would want to have their son.
So no, I don't know that it was court-ordered either for Dad to have make-up time OR for Mom to actually have Mother's Day. Although, I will say, before OP asks - it would be kind of tacky for Dad to refuse Mother's Day whether it's ordered or not. (Yes, it would also be tacky for Mom to deny Father's Day.)
 

wileybunch

Senior Member
The court order states that if his visit falls on my Mother's Day, or if my visit falls on his Father's Day, we can make up our visit by taking the Sunday preceeding our day...I thought that was a standard clause?
My DH's CO doesn't say this. He usually has 3rd weekend (although summertime he can have up to 1/2 time) and Father's Day is 3rd Sunday so usually 3rd weekend, but this year it's actually on the 2nd weekend. DH is planning to have daughter for that weekend as part of his 1/2 time this summer since Mom's already blocked out so many other dates he can't have, but otherwise she had said he could NOT have her the whole weekend, only on Father's Day (even though she also told him she'd have the 3rd weekend as a vacation).
 

penelope10

Senior Member
My DH's CO doesn't say this. He usually has 3rd weekend (although summertime he can have up to 1/2 time) and Father's Day is 3rd Sunday so usually 3rd weekend, but this year it's actually on the 2nd weekend. DH is planning to have daughter for that weekend as part of his 1/2 time this summer since Mom's already blocked out so many other dates he can't have, but otherwise she had said he could NOT have her the whole weekend, only on Father's Day (even though she also told him she'd have the 3rd weekend as a vacation).
Just wanted to state what my decree states about Mother's Day. "Each year, beginning at 6:00 p.m. on the Friday preceding MD and ending at 6:00 pm on MD provided that Penelope is not otherwise entitled under the Standard Possession Order to present possession of the child." A Standard Possession Order can vary from State to State. (Or upon the agreement of the parties divorcing different wording all together can be put in an order regarding a certain holiday/holidays).

Now here's the problem that a lot of divorced couples get into. The want Mom or Dad to give up that weekend or split the Day for folks that don't have legal standing....Stepmommy, Stepdaddy, GM, GP, etc. and then they get their nose bent out of shape when the parent entitled to MD or FD doesn't want to give up their time with the kiddo for these other folks.....Causes a lot of unnecessary stress for every body involved especially JR.
 

summerdawn

Senior Member
What OP wrote was:



So no, I don't know that it was court-ordered either for Dad to have make-up time OR for Mom to actually have Mother's Day. Although, I will say, before OP asks - it would be kind of tacky for Dad to refuse Mother's Day whether it's ordered or not. (Yes, it would also be tacky for Mom to deny Father's Day.)
I was told by our mediator that Mothers Day is generally given to the mother (like, by law it is the Mother's time), and Father's Day to the father...whether it's the other parent's day or not...I didn't know if that was just in our state or the whole country. It seems like a very logical rule so I guess I just thought everyone does it that way.
 

penelope10

Senior Member
I was told by our mediator that Mothers Day is generally given to the mother (like, by law it is the Mother's time), and Father's Day to the father...whether it's the other parent's day or not...I didn't know if that was just in our state or the whole country. It seems like a very logical rule so I guess I just thought everyone does it that way.
Sigh, sometimes logic has nothing to do with it. Especially in the case of divorces;)
 
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