stealth2
Under the Radar Member
I think the difference is that Mom has told us that she left the kid with Dad - and that he would never hurt the child - but then is going for sole custody because he has abused her (intimating that he is a danger to the kid). Can't have it both ways, IMO.latigo's lack of...whatever it is... notwithstanding ( ), I do have a serious question.
So often in the past a mother has been told that just because Dad beats on her, this does not mean he'll beat on the child and for that reason she can't restrict Dad's access.
What's different about this thread?